Under the Law

[Richard Myers]

One of the difficult concepts in the New Testament writings of Paul is his term "under the law". Many professing Christians, especially Evangelicals, have taken this to mean that the ten commandment law is binding and therefore when we are "not under the law" it is not binding. There is then a serious error in that it will always be contrary to the Christian experience to murder. Not one jot or title has disappeared from the law. Jesus did not come to do away with His law, but to establish it.

We have been studying the Old and New Covenant which in order to understand we ought to be able to understand Paul's teaching on the phrase "under the law". And, we are studying Romans 7 and 8 which will benefit from a correct understanding of our topic here.

[JimB]

This may be in some ways too simplistic but it is my understanding that a person is under the Law when they transgress the Law. When a person is abiding in Christ and therefore through grace has the power to resistant temptation they are not "under the law" because the Law cannot condemn those who have not transgressed it. However, if we like Peter when he was on the water take our eyes off Christ and fall into the waters of sin we are under the law.

[Mimi]

That is exactly how I understand it, Jim. 

[Richard Myers]

Was Christ "under the law"?

[Allan F]

Thank you Richard for bringing up this topic. It is a very interesting subject. Maybe it would be a good beginning to show (again) the few passages from the NT where this expression is used.

The expression "hupo nomos" is a greek idiom which is translated "under the law", and is used by Paul several times and is found in the books of Romans, Corintians and Galatians:

Rom 6:14.15 - For sin shall not have dominion over you: for ye are not under the law, but under grace. What then? shall we sin, because we are not under the law, but under grace? God forbid.

1Co 9:20.21 - And unto the Jews I became as a Jew, that I might gain the Jews; to them that are under the law, as under the law, that I might gain them that are under the law; To them that are without law, as without law, (being not without law to God, but under the law to Christ,) that I might gain them that are without law.

Gal 3:23-27 -  But before faith came, we were kept under the law, shut up unto the faith which should afterwards be revealed. Wherefore the law was our schoolmaster to bring us unto Christ, that we might be justified by faith. But after that faith is come, we are no longer under a schoolmaster. For ye are all the children of God by faith in Christ Jesus. For as many of you as have been baptized into Christ have put on Christ.

Gal 4:4-6 - But when the fulness of the time was come, God sent forth his Son, made of a woman, made under the law, To redeem them that were under the law, that we might receive the adoption of sons. And because ye are sons, God hath sent forth the Spirit of his Son into your hearts, crying, Abba, Father.

Gal 4:21 - Tell me, ye that desire to be under the law, do ye not hear the law?

Gal 5:18  But if ye be led of the Spirit, ye are not under the law.

[Allan F]

There already exists several suggestions to what the expression "under the law" means:
1) "Under the law" = Under the condemnation of the law, because we are breaking the law
2) "Under the law" = We need to follow the law. When we are no longer under the law we dont need to follow Gods 10 comandments/law
3) Brother Thomas M posted in an earlier thread a third interpretation: "The term "under the law" cannot thus be understood in Paul to refer to a broad and comprehensive soteriology, the grace of Christianity in contrast to the legalism of Judaism, for the simple reason that such a dichotemy is historically inaccurate. There never was a Judaism based on salvation by works." "Paul's criticism of Judaism as being "under the law" is specific to their rejection of the Messiah and the particular abuse of the law that fostered that rejection. Paul, Jesus, and the early Christians generally held the Scriptures in common with the rest of the Jews, and that included the absolute belief in the abiding authority of the Torah law. What they differed upon what how the law should be applied, with or without the figure of the Messiah, and what that application implied in practice. The one applies the law by grace through the Messiah, the other relates to the law through the "grace" of Rabbinic method or priestly application. [The difference is not law versus grace, but who the grace would come through]

4) Are there other interpretations you would like us to consider?

[Richard Myers]

Thanks, Brother Allan.  I stumbled across the original topic. Should have done a search before opening this one. I wondered how we could have gone so long without opening it. Now I know. Sorry. I will move Brother Thomas' post to this thread.

[Richard Myers]

None of the three interpretations seem to work. Is there a fourth? 

[Mimi]

Was Christ "under the law"?

No. He did nothing to bring the law upon Him as a taskmaster because He lived in harmony with it. Had He held up the law to His face, as a mirror, nothing would be been revealed to Him as lacking.

[Tim2]

May I suggest that we are "under the law" because of "one mans sin"?  It is true that there have been a succession of falls and we are worse off because of that, but we are condemned in our nature because of Adams sin.  In other words in Adam we all sinned when he chose for mankind.  Adam was created without a taint of sin but chose to sin anyway.  We are born with fallen natures and therefore, we are sinners because of his sin.  We are born sinners (noun) and sin (verb) naturally.  This means we are sinners even when we aren't sinning.  We need Christ's righteousness, don't we?

[Tim2]

Was Christ "under the law"?

No. He did nothing to bring the law upon Him as a taskmaster because He lived in harmony with it. Had He held up the law to His face, as a mirror, nothing would be been revealed to Him as lacking.

Read Galatians 4:4,5

[Tim2]

Remind me to ask you Richard, about that quote feature.

Read Galatians 4:4,5 to find our whether Christ was born under the law.  What did that mean in His case -- being the spotless Lamb of God.

[Mimi]

Good evening, Tim. How can God in the flesh be under the law in the sense sinners are? His parents raised Him adhering to the Mosaic law because as a Jew He was subject to it; however, "under the law" (moral law) as a condemned sinner in need of a Savior, no. However, as our Sin Bearer, Savior, Redeemer, He took upon Himself the penalty of the law for us all.

God is calling upon all to behold the Lamb of God, which taketh away the sin of the world. Christ lifts the guilt of sin from the sinner, standing Himself under the condemnation of the Lawgiver. He came to this world to live the law in humanity, that Satan’s charge that human beings cannot keep the law of God might be demonstrated as false. {CTr 279.5}

He kept the law in humanity, and when He was accused falsely by the Pharisees, He turned to them, asking with a voice of authority and power, “Which of you convinceth me of sin?” He came to reveal to the heavenly universe, to the worlds unfallen, and to sinful people, that every provision had been made by God in behalf of humanity, and that through the imputed righteousness of Christ all who receive Him by faith can show their loyalty by keeping the law. As repenting sinners lay hold of Christ as their personal Saviour, they are made partakers of the divine nature.—Manuscript 63, 1897. {CTr 279.6}

[Tim2]

Yes, that is the question.  The Bible says he was born under the law, but why, where, what, when and how.  He said, I lay down my life and I take it up again.  He came in the likeness of sinful flesh, but Paul didn't say he came in sinful flesh, so.... was it His choice?

[Allan F]

Thanks for the interesting comments. I too was thinking a bit how it is possible that Jesus was under the law. In this connection i would like to repost something that i posted in an earlier thread. Maybe it can be helpful in order to understand Gal 4,4:

What does it mean when Jesus was made under the law in Gal 4:4? Does it mean that he was born under the jurisdiction of the law, or does it mean something else?

The word ""made" of a woman, "made" under the law" in Gal 4:4 is ginomai (gr.), which in no other place in the NT denotes birth. It is therefore less likely that Paul is referring to the birth of Jesus, but to a role he took upon himself. Jesus was made many things in order to save us:

He was "ginomai" flesh (Joh 1:14)
He was "ginomai" so much better than the angels (Heb 1:4)
He was "ginomai" a High Priest (Heb 5:5)
He was "ginomai" a surety of a better testament (Heb 7:22)
He was "ginomai" higher than the Heavens (Heb 7:26)
He was "ginomai" the head of the corner (1Pet 2:7)

If we we look at the chapter before, Gal 3:13, we find a parallel thought. Compare these two verses:

Gal 3:13
"Christ hath redeemed us from the curse of the law, being made a curse for us"

Gal 4:4.5
"God sent forth his Son, made of a woman, made under the law, To redeem them that were under the law, that we might receive the adoption of sons"

Jesus was made a curse and was also made under the law.

In 2Cor 5:21 we find the same thought:
"For he hath made him to be sin for us, who knew no sin; that we might be made the righteousness of God in him."

Could it be that Jesus was made under the law, in the sense of being condemned by it? As he was "made sin" and took our sins upon himself, He could "redeem them that were under the law", in other words He "redeemed us from the curse of the law", "that we might receive the adoption of sons", "and be made the righteousness of God in him".

Does this make sense?

[Mimi]

The plan of salvation clearly tells us it was Jesus' choice to come to this earth in the form of humanity some 4,000 years after the fall. Inspiration tells us He had to convince the Father of this through three very difficult conversations. Jesus had a choice and He chose to live among us as one of us and the Father conceded at the risk of forever losing His own Son. What love! I cannot conceive it.

I am sure our scholars can set us straight on this question of "God in the flesh under the law" should we need it and we probably will; however, Christ came to fulfill the law. He was the personification of the law. He created it and lived it, how could He be subject to it when there was no sin in Him the law could condemn? It was His purpose to show us how to live out the precepts of the law in daily life through loyalty to God and to mankind.

His role as Savior, Redeemer could be such because He is our Sacrifice. As the Lamb without blemish, He alone qualifies to pay the price for the sins of the world, taking upon Himself the penalty attached to transgression of the law of God. Because of Him, we will not have to pay that price. If Paul had the cross in mind in his statement in Galatians 4:4, 5, then I can agree because it was the weight of sin under which He suffered separation from the Father. As the Sin Bearer, He was condemned to die, not for His sins, but for the world's.

[Mimi]

Allan, dearest. We were posting about the same time, and you can see I am in agreement. I can think of nothing else. Jesus, in the extraordinary sense that He is the Sin Bearer, and all of the ramifications associated with His role as Redeemer at the cross is condemned by the law and willingly pays the penalty. 

 

[Allan F]

Thanks Sybil. Yes from what i understand so far i agree with you. If this interpretation is right, "under the law" in Gal 4,4 means to be condemned by the law, rather than being (born) under its jurisdiction (obligation to follow it) as many evangelicals interpret this verse to mean. The question is then, does "under the law" mean the same thing in all the other instances where this expression is used?

If it does, then interpretation nr 1) (see above) is not correct. Interpretation nr 3) seems incorrect too for the following reason: This interpretation suggests that being under the law means "the law through the "grace" of Rabbinic method". It is difficult to see how Jesus in any way would become subject to such a teaching in order to save those who were likewise "under the law".

[Allan F]

Here are some quotes from the Spirit of Prophecy i found on being "under the law"

-Those who are obedient to the will of God will not have a hard and miserable time
in this life. Hear again the words of Christ: "These things have I spoken unto you,
that my joy might remain in you, and that your joy might be full" (verse 11). This
is the witness which it is the privilege of all to have--the joy of Christ in the soul
through appropriating the word of God . . . and bringing the requirements of
Christ into the practical life. There is full assurance of hope in believing every
word of Christ, believing in Him, being united to Him by living faith. When this
is his experience, the human being is no longer under the law, for the law no
longer condemns his course of action. . . .  {HP 144.4}

-Our heavenly Father designed to prove and test the professed faith and obedience
of his people. The sacrifices which they performed under the law were typical of
the Lamb of God, and illustrated his great atonement. Yet the Jewish nation were
so blinded and deceived by Satan that when Christ came, whom their sacrifices
and offerings had been prefiguring, they would not receive him. They led him as a
lamb to the slaughter.  {4aSG 118.1}

-The law of God does not condemn and hold in bondage those who have these
graces; because they are obeying the requirements of the law of God. They are
law-keepers, and therefore they are not under the bondage of the law.  {RH,
January 4, 1887 par. 3}

-This is the witness which it is the privilege of all to have--the joy of Christ in the
soul through appropriating the Word of God, eating it as the bread of life,
believing the Word, and bringing the requirements of Christ into the practical life.
There is full assurance of hope in believing every word of Christ, believing in
Him, being united to Him by living faith. When this is his experience, the human
being is no longer under the law, for the law no longer condemns his course of
action.  {21MR 23.1}

[Mimi]

Good quotes, Allan. They confirm our discussion thus far. A quick search of the EGW CD of three words: Christ under law produces 593 hits with much in the same vein you found but with a slant toward its relation to Him, and to no surprise, many references to righteousness by faith, a bold underlying current.  Consistently, He is described as the "Lamb without blemish" "slain" "brought under condemnation" on our behalf. He was sinless so it must be an Atonement action referenced by Paul. Nothing else seems to fit.