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Romans 3:28 "Therefore we conclude that a man is justified by faith without the deeds of the law."I am trying to understand how someone can misread this text to do away with the law. If they are saying once they are justified by faith then they don't have to do the deeds of the law then are they going to steal, commit adultery and kill?
Romans 3:28 "Therefore we conclude that a man is justified by faith without the deeds of the law." I am trying to understand how someone can misread this text to do away with the law. If they are saying once they are justified by faith then they don't have to do the deeds of the law then are they going to steal, commit adultery and kill?
And what about Romans 6:14 Just to be clear are some teaching that under the law means under obedience to the law and then when we are under grace we no longer have to keep the law?
Then there is Romans 7:4 are some teaching that the when we become married to Christ then the law is dead and not longer has any relevance?